🧵 My thought on the collatz conjecture.

Anonymous at Thu, 25 Apr 2024 02:33:10 UTC No. 16144659

So as you see the problem is that : For even numbers, divide by 2;
For odd numbers, multiply by 3 and add 1.
With enough repetition, do all positive integers converge to 1? The reason to why it converges to 1 is simply because if you look at 2 and 3 they go up to 4 which is bigger than 3 and 3 goes to 6 so if you see the 4 of 2 eats the number itself and all the numbers above 3 so with some mechanics you can reason the reason and it's because it goes to 1. This can also show that maybe 1 is prime because 4-3 goes back to 1. Any thought pls thanks.