🧵 Untitled Thread
Anonymous at Sun, 16 Feb 2025 15:54:51 UTC No. 16587992
Why is everyday language often different in meaning from the strictly logical meaning?
For example, if you say
>John doesn't play either trumpet or clarinet.
that means
>John doesn't play trumpet, and he doesn't play clarinet.
but in strictly logical language it means
>John either doesn't play trumpet, or he doesn't play clarinet.
Anonymous at Sun, 16 Feb 2025 15:57:44 UTC No. 16587994
>>16587992
how bout
>john doesnt play (trumpet | clarinet)
?
Anonymous at Sun, 16 Feb 2025 16:20:20 UTC No. 16588024
>>16587992
because there is no requirement that everyday language adhere to a strict logical regime so long as what it communicates is comprehensible, and everything from convenience to misheard phrases can play a role in this.
>John plays neither the trumpet nor the clarinet
is what is intended by 'doesn't play either'. most people will understand it this way despite it meaning something different logically. that's really all that matters. 'should of' doesn't even make linguistic sense let alone logical, but I still understand what is intended by it.
Anonymous at Sun, 16 Feb 2025 16:22:23 UTC No. 16588028
>>16588024
Learn to capitalize. Didn't read.
Anonymous at Sun, 16 Feb 2025 16:35:31 UTC No. 16588037
>>16587992
Thats because its suppused to be jonh doesn't play the trumpet
nor the clarite.
But like they changed it so it sounds better.
Anonymous at Sun, 16 Feb 2025 16:36:37 UTC No. 16588038
>>16588037
Wait I just made my example retarded.
Well you get the gist