🧵 Gauge Theories
Anonymous at Thu, 13 Mar 2025 17:30:30 UTC No. 16617929
In literature/discussions I've come across the notion that U(1) theories don't prevent yukawa mass terms for the gauge boson, despite the fact that it wouldn't be gauge invariant. The argument (which I'm likely misunderstanding), is that you could just write the theory by hand without any mention of the gauge principle. It's a bit unsatisfying.
Beyond the fact that it's abelian, is there something more "special" about U(1) that I'm not getting?
Anonymous at Sat, 15 Mar 2025 04:03:23 UTC No. 16619479
>>16617929
>The argument (which I'm likely misunderstanding), is that you could just write the theory by hand without any mention of the gauge principle. It's a bit unsatisfying.
all theories are written by hand, the symmetry is a desired feature. I figure the people that propose these theories chose lagrangians, out of the infinite possibilities, for ones that have the desired symmetries. Say U(1) for EM
I would like to talk more about this as i myself have questions
Anonymous at Sat, 15 Mar 2025 08:49:46 UTC No. 16619576
>>16617929
>>16619479
i recommend watching Richqrd Behiels videos on youtube about, especially the one about EM and U(1)
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Sj_
it might answer some of the questions
Anonymous at Sat, 15 Mar 2025 18:23:12 UTC No. 16619943
>>16617929
I might be talking out of my ass here but isn't the U(1) symmetry different after mixing? It picks up a Z isospin component. The massless U(1) component falls out because you only add one scalar boson.